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Question #609 posted on 10/02/2003 2:31 a.m.

Dear 100 Hour Board,

In Answers to Gospel Questions, Joseph Fielding Smith was asked why we do not celebrate Good Friday, and his answer was something to the effect of the date of Easter is based on a pagan holiday, so thus we do not truly know when Good Friday is, but at the same token then we do not know when the actual date of Easter is. Granted the date is inconsequential, It seems as though we should have a set date for Easter. Could you explain why we do not?

P.S. I am male; beau is the masculine form of, oh lets say "stud", en francais.

A: There actually is a set date for Easter. It's the first Sunday after the first full moon in spring. This is because Easter corresponds with the Jewish Passover, and since the Jews used a lunar-and-equinox-based calendar, Passover and other holidays change within the Gregorian calendar system.

-- Misaneroth